How do I respond to the claim that 2Timothy 3:16 supports Sola Scriptura?
by Steven O'Keefe, CAA Staff Apologist
For background, Sola Scriptura is a core Protestant doctrine that says Christians do not need the Church as an authoritative teacher and interpreter of the Bible. Rather, all Christians need is the bare text of the Scriptures, which serve as the sole source of data for Christian doctrine and practice.  Catholics often ask whether this idea is itself taught in the Bible.  After all, if Sola Scriptura says all Christian doctrine should be derived from the Bible, you would expect Sola Scriptura to be in there.  If not, the principle would be self-refuting.  

The most common text which Protestants appeal to for supporting Sola Scriptura is 2Timothy 3:16.  It reads: "All scripture is inspired and useful for teaching, for refutation, and for training in righteousness, so that the man of God may be competent, equipped for every good work."

The best way to answer is to read the text carefully.  Paul says Scripture is inspired by God.  He says it is useful for teaching and training.  He says it will help equip us for every good work.  Catholics agree on all counts.  So… at what point did Paul say Scripture is all you ever need?  Where did he say all Christian doctrine has to be explicitly found in the Bible?  Where did he deny the role of the Apostolic teaching Church?  Nowhere.  This passage could rightly be compared to a man saying, “Wood glue is strong, versatile stuff and is useful in every carpentry project.”  Suppose a person hears that and understands him to be saying, “Wood glue is the only thing you need for your carpentry projects.”  That would be an absurd misrepresentation.  But that is precisely what is going on when someone claims 2Timothy 3:16 supports Sola Scriptura.

How do Catholics understand the predestination passages in Ephesians 1? My Batist friend thinks it means Christians cannot lose their salvation.
by Steven O'Keefre, CAA Staff Apologist
The Protestant theology known as Calvinism, also known as "once saved always saved,"  famously asserts that once a Christian enters into a saving relationship with God, that person’s fate is forever secure.  One of the passages they cite as evidence of this doctrine is Ephesians 1:4, which reads: “For He chose us in Him before the creation of the world to be holy and blameless in His sight. In love He predestined us for adoption to sonship through Jesus Christ.”  Using this passage, the common assertion is: “If God predestines us Christians, then there is no way for someone adopted into God’s family to lose his/her salvation.”

This passage does indeed talk about predestination.  The question is, predestination to what?  In this case, the gentile audience of Ephesians is being told they were “predestined to adoption”.  But if you're predestined to be adopted as a son/daughter, does that mean you're guaranteed to remain in a saving relationship with Christ?  Isn't it also possible for an adopted child to run away from home or do something to get disinherited?

We can turn to the parable of the Prodigal Son for an answer.  In this parable we start with a young man who is a son of the father, residing in the father’s house, and “alive”.  Then he spurns his father and leaves.  At this point, the father indicates his son's status is “dead” [Lk 15:32]. So in this parable (which clearly relates to our spiritual lives) we see how a person can be a child of the father and nonetheless relegate himself to spiritual death. We can do that either by walking away from the faith or by turning to a life of sin.  That's why later in the same letter (Ephesians) Paul warns his audience about the real danger of disinheriting themselves through mortal sin. [Eph 5:3-6]